Before Bragging Rights 2009 - Team Raw vs Team Smackdown

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Sample Question Paper
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Class-X
Summative Assessment-1
October 2010
Design of Question paper
TIME : 3 Hrs MM : 80
1. WEIGHTAGE TO FORM OF QUESTIONS
Form of Questions Marks of Number of Total Marks
Each Question Question
1. Multiple Choice
Question (M.C.Qs) 1 16 16
2. Short Answer (S.A.) 3 15 45
3. Long Answer (L.A.) 4 4 16
4. Map Question 3 1 3
Total - 36 80
2. UNIT-WISE DIVISION OF QUESTIONS
Unit No. Subject Marks No. of No. of No. of Map Total
1 mark 3 marks 4 marks Question
Question Question Question
1. India and the
Contemporary
World II (History) 20 4 4 1 - 20 (9)
2. Contemporary
India II (Geography) 20 4 3 1 1 20 (9)
3. Democratic
Politics II
(Geography) 20 4 4 1 - 20 (9)
4. Understanding
Economic
Development
(Economics) 20 4 4 1 - 20 (9)
TOTAL 80 16 15 4 1 80(36)
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Blue Print - April - September 2010
SOCIAL SCIENCE (Class X)
TERM-I
S. TOPICS MCQ SA LA MAP TOTAL
NO. MARKS MARKS MARKS MARK
1. (1) The Making of a
Global World Ch. (4) 2 (2) 3(1) 4(1) - 9(4)
OR OR OR OR
The Age of Industrialisation
Ch. (5) 2(2) 3(1) 4(1)
OR OR OR OR
Work, Life and Leisure 2(2) 3(1) 4(1)
Ch. (6)
(2) Print Culture and the
Modern World Ch. (7) 2(2) 9(3) - - 11(5)
OR OR OR OR
Novels, Society and
History Ch. (8) 2(2) 9(3) 4(1)
2. (1) Resources and 1(1) 3(1) - 1* 4
Development Ch. (1) (2+1 map)
(2) Forest and Wildlife
Resources Ch. (2) 1(1) 3(1) - 1* 4(2)
(3) Water Resources
Ch. (3) 1(1) 3(1) - 1* 4(2)
(4) Agriculture Ch. (4) 1(1) - 4(1) - 5(2)
3. (1) Power Sharing
Ch. (1) 2(2) 3(1) - - 5(3)
(2) Federalism Ch. 2) 1(1) - 4(1) - 5(2)
(3) Democracy and
Diversity Ch. (3) - 6(2) - - 6(2)
(4) Gender, Religion and
Cast Ch. (4) 1(1) 3(1) - - 4(2)
4. (1) Development
Ch. (1) 2(2) 6(2) - - 8(4)
(2) Sectors of
The Indian Economy
Ch. (2) 2(2) 6(2) 4(1) - 12(5)
Total 16(16) 45(15) 16(4) 3(1) 80(36)
* for map question, marks have been combined to form one question.
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SOCIAL SCIENCE SYLLABUS
CLASS X
Time : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
TERM-I (1st April 2010 - 30th September 2010)
UNIT 1 - HISTORY : India and the Contemporary World II
Sub-Unit 1.2 Economies and Livelihood
(ANY ONE OF THE FOLLOWING)
4 Industrialization 1850s-1950s (Chapter 4)
5 Urbanization and Urban lives (Chapter 5)
6 Trade and Globalization (Chapter 6)
Sub-Unit 1.3 Culture, identity and Society
(ANY ONE OF THE FOLLOWIG )
7 Print culture and nationalization (Chapter 7)
8 History of the Novel (Chapter 8)
UNIT 2 - GEOGRAPHY : India-Land and People
1 Resources (Chapter 1)
2 Natural Resources (Chapter 1)
3 Forest and Wildife Resources (Chapter 2)
4 Water Resources (Chapter 3)
5 Agriculture (Chapter 4)
UNIT 3 - POLITICAL SCIENCE : DEMOCRATIC POLITICS II
1 Power sharing mechanism in Democracy(Chapter 1 and 2)
2 Working of Democracy (Chapter 3 and 4)
UNIT 4 - ECONOMICS : UNDERSTANDING ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT - II
1 The story of Development (Chapter 1)
2 The role of Service Sector in Indian Economy (Chapter 2)
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List of Map Items for Examination
GEOGRAPHY
For Identification/Location and labelling on the Outline Political Map of India
Chapter 1 : Resources and Development
Identification only : Major soil types.
Chapter 2 : Forest and Wildlife Resources
(i) Identification only : Major areas of permanent, reserved and protected forests.
(ii) Locating and labelling only : Corbett National Park (Uttaranchal); Sunderban National
Park (N.P.)(W. Bengal); Bandhavgarh N.P. (M.P.); Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary (Rajasthan);
Manas Tiger Reserve (Assam) and Periyar Tiger Reserve (Kerala)
Chapter 3 : Water Resources
Locating and Labelling ; Dams: (1) Salal; (2) Bhakra Nangal; (3) Tehri; (4) Rana Pratap
Sagar; (5) Sardar Sarovar; (6) Hirakud; (7) Nagarjuna Sagar; (8) Tungabhadra.
Chapter 4: Agriculture
Identification and also for locating and labelling :
(a) Major areas of rice and wheat.
(b) Major producer states of sugarcane; tea; coffee; rubber; cotton jute; millets and maize.
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Social Science
Sample question paper
Summative Assessment I
(October-2010)
Class X
Time: 3hours M.M.: 80
Instructions :
1. The question paper has 36 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. This question paper consist of two parts i.e. Part I and Part II. Part I of the question paper
contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial Number 1 to 16 of 1 mark each.
These sixteen questions of Part I are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part
has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the
invigilator before starting Part II.
4. In Part II, there are twenty questions from serial no. 17 to 36 which are to be attempted in 2
hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted the stipulated only after time given for
Part I.
5. Questions from serial number 17 to 31 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions
should not exceed 80 words each
6. Questions from serial number 32 to 35 are 4 marks questions. Answer of these questions
should not exceed 100 words each
7. Question number 36 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion,
attach the map inside your answer book.
Part I
1. In which one of the following years Great Depression occurred in the world?
(a) 1929-30 (b) 1935-36
(c) 1939-40 (d) 1941-42
OR
Who, among the following, improved the steam engine produced by New common?
(a) Mathew Boulton (b) James Walt
(c) Henry Ford (d) Grahm Bell 1
OR
Which one of the following is correct about the Annual London Season?
(a) It was meant for wealthy Britishers only.
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(b) Organised for an elite group of 300-400 families.
(c) Several cultural events were organised.
(d) All the above 1
2. Which one of the following groups of the countries was known as the 'Central powers' in
Europe?
(a) Germany, Russia & France
(b) Russia, Germany & Britain
(c) Germany, Austria-Hungary and Ottoman-Turkey
(d) None of the above
OR
Which of the following group of industries was the dynamic industries of England during its
earliest phase of industrialization?
(a) Cotton and metals
(b) Cotton and silk
(c) Silk and footwears
(d) Footwear and glass 1
OR
After reclamation how many islands were joined together to develop the city of Bombay
(Mumbai)?
(a) Seven (b) Five
(c) Three (d) Ten
3. Who among the following developed the first known printing press in the 1430s?
(a) Johann Gutenburg (b) James Watt
(c) New Common (d) Marconi
OR
Who among the following is the author of the novel 'Hard Times'?
(a) Leo Tolstoy (b) Thomas Hardy
(c) Charles Dickens (d) Samuel Richardson 1
4. The first printing press came to India with which one of the following?
(a) Portuguese Missionaries (b) Catholic Priests
(c) Dutch protestants (d) East India Company 1
OR
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Who among the following is the author of the novel 'Pariksha Guru'?
(a) Prem Chand
(b) Srinivas Das
(c) Devki Nandan Khatri
(d) Chandu Menon 1
5. Which one of the following soil types is the most widely spread and important soil in India.
(a) Laterite soils (b) Black soils
(c) Alluvial soils (d) Red and yellow soils 1
6. In which one of the following states, Corbett National Park is located?
(a) Assam (b) Madhya pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttarakhand 1
7. On which one of the following rivers Sardar Sarovar Dam is built?
(a) River Kaveri (b) River Krishna
(c) River Narmada (d) River Satluj 1
8. In which one of the following crops, India is the leading producer and exporter in the world?
(a) Jute (b) Tea
(c) Coffee(d) Rubber 1
9. Which of the following minority communities is relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?
(a) French (b) Dutch
(c) German (d) English 1
10. What is the %age of Sinhala speaking in Srilanka? Choose the correct option from the
following:
(a) 58 (b) 74
(c) 65 (d) 82 1
11. Which one of the following countries fall in the category of 'coming together federation'?
(a) India (b) US
(c) Spain (d) Belgium 1
12. Which one of the following does not come under the purview of 'family laws'?
(a) Matters related to marriage
(b) Matters related to divorce
(c) Matters related to adoption
(d) Matters related to robbery 1
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13. Among the following criteria which one is the basis to measure the development of a country
according to the World Bank
(a) Per Capita income
(b) Literacy Rate
(c) Gross Enrolment ratio
(d) Life expectancy 1
14. Which one among the following is a development goal common to all?
(a) Freedom
(b) Equal opportunities
(c) Security and respect
(d) High levels of income and better quality of life 1
15. Which one of the following occupation is not associated with primary sector
(a) Basket weaver
(b) Gardener
(c) Potter
(d) Priest 1
16. Which one among the following is the most appropriate meaning of Underemployment?
(a) Workers are not paid for their work
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing
(c) Workers are working in a lazy manner
(d) Workders do not want to work 1
17. Explain the impact of Great depression of 1929 on the Indian economy giving three
points. 3x1=3
OR
Explain any three problems faced by the cotton weavers in India during mid 19th
century. 3x1=3
OR
Explain any three reasons for the expansion of Bombay's (Mumbai's) population in
mid 18th century. 3x1=3
18. "Access to books created a new culture of reading." Support the statement giving
three examples". 3x1=3
OR
Explain the contribution of women writers on the writing of novels in India.3x1=3
19. Explain how Martin Luther spoke in praise of print. 3x1=3
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OR
Explain the contribution of Prem Chand in the field of novel writing. 3x1=3
20. Explain giving three points how did the print culture develop in India? 3x1=3
OR
Explain the contribution of Rokeya Hossein in the field of education and literature.
3x1=3
21. What is resource planning? Why is the planning of resource essential? Explain any two
reasons. 1+2=3
22. Why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife resources? Explain any three reasons.
3x1=3
23. Why is the scarcity of water increasing day by day in India? Explain any three reasons.
3x1=3
24. Mention any three provisions of the Act which was passed in Sri Lanka in 1950 to establish
Sinhala supermacy 3x1=3
25. Explain overlapping and cross cutting social differences. 1½+1½=3
26. Explain any three factors that determine the outcome of politics of social division. 3
27. State any three facts to show that the women face disadvantage and discrimination in our
patriarch society. 3
28. Explain any three different bases of comparison of economic development of different nations
/ states. 3x1=3
29. Describe any three public facilities needed for development. 3x1=3
30. Explain any three types of unemployment found in India. 3x1=3
31. "Workers are exploited in unorganized sectors in India". Support the statement with suitable
examples. 3x1=3
32. Explain the effects of coming of rinderpest to Africa during the close of 19th century.
4x1=4
OR
Explain giving four reasons why did the industrialists of Europe prefer hand labour over
machines during the 19th century. 4x1=4
Or
Why did well off Londoners support the need for building houses for the poor in 19th century?
Explain in four points. 4x1=4
33. What is the main contribution of agriculture to the national economy? Explain any three steps
taken by the Government of India to modernize agriculture. 1+3=4
34. Explain any four features of federalism. 4x1=4
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35. How can more employment be created in rural areas? Explain with the help of four suitable
examples. 4x1=4
36. Three features with serial number 1 to 3 are marked on the given political outline map of
India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and their correct names
on the lines marked in the Map. 3x1=3
1. Soil type
2. Tiger Reserve
3. The leading coffee producing state
OR
Locate and label the following items with appropriate symbols on the same Map.
1. Hirakud Dam
2. Sunderbans national park
3. The largest producing state of Bajra
Note : The following question is for the Visual impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q.No. 36
36.1 What is the colour of the arid soils
36.2 Name the Tiger Reserve of Kerala.
36.3 In which state 'Bhairodev Dakar Sonchuri' is developed for protecting the wildlife?
3x1=3
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1
2
3
Question 36.
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Social Science
Marking Scheme
Class X
Part I
1. (a) or (b) or (d)
2. (c) or (a) or (a)
3. (a) or (c)
4. (a) or (b)
5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (c) 8. (b)
9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (d)
15. (d) 16. (b)
Part II
17. i. The depression affected Indian trade.
ii. Indian imports as well as exports almost halved between 1928 and 1934.
iii. As international prices crashed, prices in India also plunged.
iv. Wheat prices fell by 50%
v. Although agricultural prices fell sharply yet the colonial govt. refused to reduce revenue
demands.
vi. The prices of raw jute also crashed to about 60%.
vii. The peasants were under heavy indebtedness.
viii. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
OR
i. The export market collapsed and the local market shrunk.
ii. Imported cotton goods were cheaper and Indian weavers could not compete with
them.
iii. Procuring raw cotton of good quality was very difficult because the prices were very
high.
iv. The market was flooded with machine made goods.
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v. Any other relevant point.
Any three points. 3x1=3
OR
i. Bombay (Mumbai) developed into the biggest sea port along the Arabian sea coast.
ii. It became the capital of Bombay Presidency.
iii. Large number of cotton textile industries sprang up which attracted lot of labour.
iv. It became the centre of film industry.
v. It provided direct sea link with Europe.
vi. Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained which attracted population to the city) 3x1=3
18. i. Before the printing press the reading of books was restricted to the elites only.
ii. With the printing press a new reading public emerged.
iii. Books reached to the wider section of the public.
iv. With the print the hearing public changed into a reading public.
v. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
OR
i. In the earlier stages women began writing stories, poems etc.
ii. In early 20th century, women in South India began writing novels.
iii. Their writings allowed for a new conception of womanhood.
iv. Stories of love showed women who could choose or refuse, their partners and
relationships.
v. Some women authors wrote about the women who changed the world of both men
and women.
vi. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
19. i. Martin Luther wrote 95 theses criticizing many of the practices and ritual of the Roman
Catholic Church.
ii. Luther's writings were immediately reproduced in vast numbers and read widely.
iii. This led to a division within the church and to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation
iv. Luther's translation of the New Testament sold 5000 copies within a few weeks.
v. Deeply grateful to print, Luther said, "printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest
one."
vi. Any other relevant point.
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Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
OR
i. Prem Chand's novels are filled with all kinds of powerful Characters drawn from all
levels of society.
ii. The women characters are also strong individuals.
iii. Prem Chand's characters create a community based on democratic values.
iv. Prem Chand's best known work is 'Godan'.
v. It is an epic of Indian peasantry.
vi. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
20. i. The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid 16th
century.
ii. By 1674 about 50 books had been printed in Konkani and Kanara languages.
iii. Catholic priests first printed Tamil books in 1579 at Cochin.
iv. In 1713 first Malayalam book was printed.
v. English writing developed much after the coming of English East India Company.
vi. Then Indians began publishing Indian newspapers.
vii. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
Or
i. Rokeya Hossein was a social reformer.
ii. She started a school for girls in Calcutta (Kolkata).
iii. She wrote satiric fantasy in English.
iv. It shows the world in which women will take the place of men.
v. Her novel 'Padamarag' shows the need for women to reform their conditions
themselves.
vi. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
21. Resource Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. 1
Reasons
1. Resources are unevenly distributed over the country.
2. Some regions are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other
resources.
3. There are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources.
4. Resources are limited.
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5. Resource planning helps in reducing wastage.
6. Resource planning takes care of future generation.
7. Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained. 1+2=3
22. Need to conserve forest and wild life resources :
1. Rapid decline in forests and wildlife population.
2. Conservation maintains the ecological balance
3. Forest depletion accelerates soil erosion.
4. Conservation is needed to protect wildlife because wildlife is threatened by man's
intervention.
5. They provide economic benefits.
6. Any other relevant point.
(Any three reasons to be explained) 3x1=3
23. Reasons of scarcity of water :
1. Rapidly growing population.
2. Rising demand of food and cash crops.
3. Water resources are being over exploited to expand irrigated areas and dry seasons
agriculture.
4. Industrialisation
5. Any other relevant reason.
(Any three reasons to be explained) 3x1=3
24. a. Sinhala to be the official language of Srilanka
b. Preferential policy of Sinhalese in government educational institutions and jobs
c. To foster Buddhism
d. Any other relevant point 3x1=3
Any three points.
25. Social divisions take place when some social difference overlaps with other differences, the
difference between blacks and whites become a social division in the US because they tend
to be poor, homeless and discriminated against. If social differences cross cut one another, it
is difficult to pit one group of people against the other. Consider the cases of Northern Ireland
and the Netherlands. Both are predominantly Christians but divided between Catholics and
Protestants. In Northern Ireland, class and religion overlap with each other. If you are Catholic,
you are also likely to be poor and you may have suffered a history of discrimination. In the
Netherlands, class and religion tend to cut across each other. Catholics and Protestants are
about equally likely to be poor or rich. The result is that Catholics and Protestants have had
conflicts in Northern Ireland, while they do not do so in the Netherlands. Overlapping social
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differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions. Cross-cutting social
differences are easier to accommodate.
26. a. First of all, the outcome depends on how people perceive their identities. If people
see their identities in singular, it becomes difficult to accommodate.
b. Secondly, it depends on how political leaders raise the demands of any community. It
is easier to accommodate demands that are within the constitutional framework and
are not at the cost of another community.
c. Thirdly, it depends on how the govt. reacts to the demands of different groups. Minorities
should also be taken care of with the majority.
27. i. The literacy rate among women is only 54% as compared to 76% among men.
ii. Proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very small.
iii. The Equal Wages Act provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work but in
practice it is not so.
iv. Parents in majority still prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child aborted.
Any three points. 3x1=3
28. Following indicators are generally used for comparison of economic development of different
nations / states :
i. Per capita income : It helps in comparison of the level of development of different
regions within the country or different nations.
ii. Infant Mortality rate : It refers to deaths among children before the age of one year
per thousand children born in a year.
iii. Literacy rate : It measures the proportion of literate population in the 7 and above
age group.
iv. Life expectancy : Average expected length of life of a person.
v. Gross enrolment ratio : For three levels for primary, secondary and higher
education.
vi. Persons living below poverty line (any three) measuring through income and expenditure
method.
Any three points. 3x1=3
29. Public facilities refer to facilities, which a person cannot arrange at individual level, these are
provided by government. Following are the main public facilities:
i. Pollution free environment
ii. Good infrastructure like roads, transport etc.
iii. Collective security for the whole locality
iv. Opening schools, colleges and hospitals
v. Taking preventive steps from infectious diseases
vi. Provision for safe drinking water, sanitation facilities etc.
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vii. Provision for public distribution system (or any other relevant points)
Any three points to be described. 3x1=3
30. The three types of unemployment found in India are :
i. Disguised unemployment
ii. Seasonal unemployment
iii. Structural unemployment
iv. Cyclical unemployment
v. Technological unemployment
(Explain any three) 3x1=3
31. i. Workers are paid less wages, there is no job security,
ii. Working conditions are poor.
iii. They have to work for long hours.
They can be protected by making some rules and regulations by the government.3x1=3
32. i. Rinderpest was carried by infected cattle imported by British Asia to feed the Italian
soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa.
ii. Rinderpest spread like forest fire.
iii. Within few years it affected the whole of Africa killing 90% of the cattle.
iv. The loss of cattle forced the Africans into the labour market.
v. The scarce resources were under the European colonizers who conquered and
subdued Africa
vi. Any other relevant point
Any four points to be explained. 4x1=4
OR
i. There was no shortage of labour at that period of time.
ii. Installation of machinery required large capital investment which the industrialists did
not want to invest.
iii. In seasonal industries only seasonal labour was required
iv. Intricate designs and different samples required human skills only.
v. In Victorian age - the aristocrats and other upper class people preferred articles made
by hand.
vi. Any other relevant point.
(any four points to the explained) 4x1=4
OR
i. Living in unhygienic slums was very dangerous for the poor.
ii. Slums were also harmful not to the slum dwellers but also to the general public.
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iii. In slums there was always fear of fire hazards.
iv. After the Russian revolution of 1917, it was felt that the people who are slum dwellers
may not rebel.
v. Any other relevant point
(any four points) 4x1=4
33. Contribution of agriculture
Agriculture has been the backbone of the Indian economy. Its share in providing employment
and livelihood to the population continues to be as high as 63 per cent in 2001.
Steps taken by the Government.
1. Indian Council of Agricultural Research established.
2. Agricultural Universities are established.
3. Veterinary services are provided.
4. Animal breeding centre are opened.
5. Infrastructure like roads, electricity cold storage etc is being developed.
6. Development in the field of meteorology and weather forecast were given priority.
7. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. 3x1=3
34. a. There are two or more levels of government.
b. The jurisdiction of the respective tiers of government are specified in the constitution.
c. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and powers of different levels of
government.
d. Sources of revenue of each level of government are specified to ensure its financial
autonomy. 4x1=4
35. More employment in rural areas can be created by :
a. Constructing dams, canals or digging wells in villages.
b. Creating storage facilities and providing transport services.
c. Agro based industries can be set up in rural areas or semi belts.
d. Construction of schools.
e. Making provision for education and health service in rural belts can also result in
employments.
f. Promoting rural crafts and rural tourism is also an employment generation proposal.
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36. See attached map for answer
For Blind Candidates
36.1 Varies from red to brown
36.2 Periyar
36.3 Rajasthan
Map Work (Question No. 36 & 36 (or)
FOREST AND
MOUNTAINOUS SOIL 1
c
RAJASTHAN
a
HIRAKUD
b
SUNDER
BAN
NATIONAL
PARK
3
KARNATAKA
2
PERIYAR

class X English communicative sullabus

Summative Assessment – I
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS X
English - Communicative
Maximum marks: 80 Time-3 hours
The question paper is divided into three sections.
Section A: Reading comprehension 20 marks
Section B: Writing 20 marks
Section C: Grammar 20 marks
Section D: Literature 20 marks

SECTION- A
(Reading -20 Marks)
Q 1 Read the following passage carefully: (5 Marks)
We are in a rush. We are making haste. A compression of time characterises our lives. As time-use researchers look around, they see a rushing and scurrying everywhere.
Instant services rule, pollsters use electronic devices during political speeches to measure opinions before they have been fully formed; fast food restaurants add express lanes. Even reading to children is under pressure. The volume “One Minute Bedtime Stories” consists of traditional stories that can be read by a busy parent in only one minute.
Time is a gentle deity, said Sophocles. Perhaps it was, for him. These days it cracks the whip. We humans have chosen speed and we thrive on it – more than we generally admit. Our ability to work fast and play fast gives us power. It thrills us. And if haste is the accelerator, multitasking is the overdrive.
A sense of well being comes with this saturation of parallel pathways in the brain. We choose mania over boredom every time. “Humans have never opted for slower,” points out the historian Stephen Kern. We catch the fever –and cramming our life feels good.
There are definite ways to save time, but what does this concept really mean? Does time saving mean getting more done? If so, does talking on a cellular phone at the beach save time or waste it? Does it make sense to say that driving saves ten minutes from your travel budget while removing ten minutes from your reading budget?
These questions have no answer. They depend on a concept that is ill formed; the very idea of time saving. Some of us say we want to save time when we really want to do more and faster. It might be simpler to recognize that there is time and we make choices about how to spend it, how to spare it, how to use it and how to fill it.
Time is not a thing we have lost. It is not a thing we ever had. It is what we live in.
Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below:
1) What Sophocles said is outdated because
a) humans today believe in leading a fast paced life
b) life today must be lived
c) humans have no other choice but to chase time
d) humans have admitted that time today is precious

2) Electronic poll devices, instant services, fast food restaurants signify
a) acceleration in life
b) impatience of our times
c) our need to work fast as it gives us power
d) all of the above

3) According to the author we wish to save time because
a) we hope to be more efficient and capable
b) we wish to accomplish more in a short period of time
c) we wish to make appropriate choices
d) time saved is time earned



4) A word that means the same as ‘filled to capacity’ is
a) mania
b) saturation
c) cramming
d) bored

5) The passage
a) advocates the need to accelerate time so that we can meet our requirements
b) recognizes the need to rush and scurry all the time
c) advises us to recognize time and decide what to do with it
d) appreciates those who invest time wisely

Q 2 Read the following passage carefully: (5 Marks)
A recent trip to Lucknow was an instant eye-opener and a more instant stimulus to introspection.
The realization of self degradation started from the station itself. All set to fight the autowallah in Lucknow and accuse him of being a rude fleecer, I was stopped mid-sentence by his demeanour. He was mild, polished and totally agreeable to whatever I would pay him. He was sure I would not pay less than what the fare should be because he felt I had enough money to do so. Of course the respectful way he spoke to me took me completely off guard, and made me a wee bit ashamed. The aggression which one has to display all the time in Delhi, I realized was not needed here. In fact, it was shocking for the autowallah to encounter a presumptuous woman yearning for a fight.
That’s what Delhi does to you. It takes away your polish. Unlike Delhi, Lucknow prefers to stay away from hysterical momentum. It takes an easy pace of life, teaches residents to stay cool, enjoy food, take siestas and work without hitting the breakneck speed barrier. It has set its priorities right. It nurtures its young and it loves its old.
In Delhi, morning walkers go for expensive paraphernalia. You need to drive at least five kms to hunt for a park. Back in Lucknow simply walk out of your house and your walk begins. No traffic and no pollution.



Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below:
1) The author was all set to fight with the autorickshaw driver in Lucknow as
a) he expected her to pay more than was due
b) she was sure he would be unjust
c) her experience in Delhi had taught her to mistrust autowallahs
d) he was unbelievably discourteous

2) Your personality in Delhi becomes
a) negative and aggressive
b) agreeable and submissive
c) polished and assertive
d) negative and submissive

3) Morning walkers in Lucknow require
a) a park outside their house
b) expensive paraphernalia
c) good sports gear
d) almost nothing

4) The word ‘presumptuous’ in the passage means
a) modest
b) rude
c) proud
d) imaginative

5) The trip to Lucknow was an eye opener for the author because
a) she realized that every city in India needs to love its old and calm down its young
b) she realized that she was full of negativity
c) she had begun to doubt everyone around her
d) all of the above




Q 3 Read the following passage carefully (5 Marks)
Su means number and Duko means single. The game of Sudoku has many similarities to the game of life. The game consists of a 9x9 grid divided into 3x3 boxes in which a few numbers called “given”- the number of givens varies between 17 and 30 for a puzzle to be reasonably viable- are already in place.
In life, too, you start with a given set of notions and then work from thereon. In Sudoku, you need to follow a set of rules to build up the grid, filling each row, column and box with numbers ranging from one to nine, so much like in life where you have to go on your way without antagonizing anyone else. Respect every number (person) and things would be fine. While trial or error may or may not work, the correct technique is in eliminating numbers that don’t fit in a particular box.
In Sudoku, the arrangement of the given numbers is symmetrical. This is instructive in life, on how to maintain steadfast faith, poise and equanimity despite situations when everything turns topsy-turvy.
There is a subtle difference between the two as well. Make a mistake and you can erase it and begin all over again in Sudoku. Not so in life. You can learn a lesson though, and avoid making the same mistake in future.
Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below:
1) The given numbers in Sudoku are comparable to the -------------------------------in life.
a) rules
b) notions
c) people
d) respect

2) In Sudoku, by eliminating numbers that do not fit we
a) keep reducing errors to succeed in life
b) keep adding the chances to solve the puzzle
c) restrict our choices
d) open new avenues

3) In life, symmetry is maintained through
a) patience and hard work
b) balance inspite of hardships
c) constant trust
d) friends and enemies
4) In life we can learn from our mistakes but we cannot
a) begin afresh
b) undo them
c) relive them
d) commit them again

5) To ‘antagonise’ in the passage means
a) to be determined
b) to be noticeable
c) to please
d) to make someone angry

Q 4 Read the following passage carefully (5 Marks)
THESE DREAMS
These dreams
Obstinate offspring of my wayward mind
Keep running out of my home
All too often.

Somewhat humiliated
Somewhat hurt
Somewhat angry
At times they even rush out barefoot.

It is difficult to pacify these stubborn kids or humour them
For theirs is a search for eternal spring
They wish to seek out the stars and talk to them
I am a tired traveller
And have not the will
To chase them anymore.

I have come to terms
With my wilderness but I do fear for
Those naïve ones
Come evening and they may seek solace
If they come to you even as you sleep
Do not push them away, tenderly hold them
In your lap like their fond mother

Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones given below:
1) The poet feels that he cannot control his dreams by saying that they
a) are somewhat angry
b) are obstinate offspring
c) rush out barefoot
d) keep running out of his home

2) I do fear for these naïve ones means that his dreams
a) need to be protected
b) need love and care
c) have become rebellious
d) need a parent to look after them

3) The message of the poem is
a) one must never stop dreaming
b) dreams distract you
c) practicality is the way of life
d) dream but know your limits

4) The poetic device in the first stanza is
a) simile
b) alliteration
c) metaphor
d) personification

5) Like a fond mother we must
a) nurture our dreams
b) push our dreams to the limits
c) hold them in our laps
d) let them be free

SECTION B
(Writing- 20marks)
Q 5 Use the notes in the following box to write a paragraph of about 100 words. (4 Marks)

Trip to Goa
• Wonderful place-open houses-eco-friendly
• People- friendly, happy-go-lucky
• Landscape-picturesque, beaches, clear blue water
• Restaurants- delicious sea food
• Sightseeing- ferry.bus, motorcycles available on rent
• Carnival- colourful, music ,dance, fun and frolic

Q 6. Your batch was the first to appear for the revamped examination system for Classes IX and
X. Taking help from the verbal stimulus given below, write an article expressing your
opinion and experiences in about 150 words. (8 Marks)

STUDENTS’ REACTION: Grades eliminate competition
No board examinations! No stress Board Examinations are history
CCE has made learning very interesting
Exam are essential to review learning and progress

Board are essential to review learning and progress





Q 7 Taking help from the visual given below, write an article for a national daily, sharing your
concerns and suggestions about the issues highlighted. (8 Marks)


SECTION C
(Grammar – 20 Marks)
Q 8. Edit the Notice given below by choosing the appropriate option from the list given.
(4 Marks)











(a) (i) is being organised (ii) has organised (iii) is organising (iv) have been organised
(b) (i) would be played (ii) are played (iii) will be played (iv) will play
(c) (i) are requested (ii) were requested (iii) are being requested (iv) have been requested
(d) (i) witnessing (ii) witness (iii) to witness (iv) are witnessed

Q 9. Complete the news stories accompanying the following headlines by filling in the blanks.
(4 Marks)
(a). Fire in Bangalore high rise, no casualties
……………………………………………………… on the terrace of a five-storey Gold Towers in Residence Road in the heart of Bangalore, a police official said. ……………………………. so far.
(i) A fire broke out; No casualties have been reported
(ii) A fire has broken out; No casualties have been reported
(iii) A fire is breaking out; No casualties are being reported
(iv) A fire broke out; No casualties are said to be reported

(b). Sania, Shoaib exchange wedding vows in Hyderabad
Indian tennis star Sania Mirza ………………………………………………. at a hotel here on Monday after getting a no-objection certificate from the city police.
(i) has been tied the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik
(ii) is tying the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik
(iii) tied the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik
(iv) will have tied the knot with Pakistani cricketer Shoaib Malik


(c). Obama asks Pakistan to bring 26/11 perpetrators to justice
US President Barack Obama asked Pakistani Prime Minister Yusouf Raza Gilani……………………………………………………., saying that this action would be a positive thing in improving Indo-Pak ties.
(i) for bringing the perpetrators of the Mumbai terrorist attack to justice
(ii) to brought a perpetrators of the Mumbai terrorist attack to justice
(iii) to bring perpetrators of Mumbai terrorist attack to justice
(iv) to bring the perpetrators of the Mumbai terrorist attack to justice

(d). Pakistan: 35 militants, 2 soldiers die in fighting
Militants armed with rockets and automatic weapons ……………………………….. in northwestern Pakistan………………………………………………….., officials said.

(i) attacked against two security checkpoints; leaving at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead
(ii) have attacked two security checkpoints; left at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead
(iii) attacked two security checkpoints; that has left at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead
(iv) attacked two security checkpoints; leaving at least 35 insurgents and two soldiers dead

Q 10 Choose the most appropriate options to complete the dialogue given below.
(4 Marks)
Nandini: Hello Niharika!
Niharika: Hi, What a pleasant surprise!
Nandini: It’s been a long time since we met.Where (a) ---------------------------------all these years?
Niharika: In Delhi. How about you? What (b)------------------------------- nowadays?
Nandini: I’m a fashion designer looking for a job. Last time we met you were still studying.
(c)----------------------business management?


Niharika: In 2001. Actually I’m here for an interview with a multinational.
Nandini: That’s a wonderful piece of news! When (d)-----------------------------------------------?
Niharika: I have to report at 5pm today. The office is in Sardar Patel Marg. Can you drop me there?
Nandini: Of course! Look there is plenty of time before that. Let’s treat ourselves to coffee.
(a) (i) had you been (ii) were you (iii) are you (iv) have you been

(b) (i) are you doing (ii) will you be doing (iii) have you been doing (iv) had you been doing

(c) (i) Are you doing (ii) When did you finish (iii) How did you finish (iv) Have you finished

(d) (i) did you report? (ii) would you come? (iii) do you have to report? (iv) do you have to come?

Q 11. Look at the notes given below and complete the paragraph that follows by choosing the
correct option. (4 Marks)
Egyptians discovered paper - made of stalks of tall reed -from word 'papyrus' — supplies limited - export restricted


The (a) ……………………………… Egyptians. It (b) ……………………………. The English word 'paper' (c) …………………………….. When supplies were limited (d) ………………………………….. the export.

(a) (i) discovery of paper has been made by the (ii) discovery of the paper was made by
(iii) discovery of paper was made by the (iv) discovery of paper is made by

(b) (i) was made from stalks of reed (ii) had been made with stalks of reed
(iii) was being made of stalks with reed (iv) was made with stalks from reed

(c) (i) derived from the word papyrus (ii) is derived of the word papyrus
(iii) has been derived from the word papyrus (iv) was derived from the word papyrus

(d) (i) and a restriction was imposed on (ii) a restriction was imposed on
(iii) a restriction has been imposed on (iv) a restriction was imposed by

Q 12. Read the following conversation carefully and complete the following passage by choosing
the most appropriate options. (4 Marks)
Dilip: I’ve been watching the sea and there hasn’t been any trace of a ship.
Ralph: I told you yesterday too that we’ll be rescued, so have patience.
Dilip: Why do you ask me to keep quiet whenever I say something?
Ralph: Have you ever said anything sensible?
Dilip said (a) ______________________________________ Ralph replied (b) ______________________________________and so asked him to have patience. Dilip angrily asked Ralph (c) __________________to which Ralph wanted to know (d) ____________________.
a)
(i) that he had been watching the sea and there hadn’t been any trace of a ship.
(ii) he had been watching the sea and there hasn’t been any trace of a ship.
(iii) that he watched the sea and there wasn’t any trace of a ship.
(iv) that he had watched the sea and there wasn’t any trace of a ship.

b)
(i) that he had told him before too that they would be rescued.
(ii) that he told him the next day too that they would be rescued.
(iii) that he had told him the day before too that they would be rescued.
(iv) that he told him the day before too that they will be rescued.

c)
(i) Why he asked him to keep quiet whenever he said something.
(ii) Why he should keep quiet whenever he said something.
(iii) that why he asked him to keep quiet whenever he said something.
(iv) Why was there a need for him to be quiet.
d)
(i) whether he had ever said anything sensible.
(ii) if he had never said anything sensible.
(iii) if he ever said anything sensible.
(iv) that If he ever said anything sensible.


SECTION D
(Literature -20 Marks)
Q 13 Read the extracts and answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate options. Attempt any two. (3x2=6 Marks)
(a)
More insects, more lanterns, more neighbours
More insects and the endless rain.
My mother twisted through and through
Groaning on a mat.
1) The cause of the mother’s agony was
a) the scorpion’s bite
b) the missing scorpion
c) the villager’s attitude
d) the endless rain

2) The poet uses the word more
a) to highlight the number
b) to emphasise mother’s pain
c) for the superstitious villagers
d) for the poem to rhyme

3) The tone of the poet in the extract is that of
a) frustration
b) irony
c) satire
d) cynici
(b)
I’m not the man I was! I will not be the man I must have been but for this lesson. I will honour
Christmas in my heart

1) The change was brought about in the speaker
a) by the ghost of Jacob Marley
b) by the spirit of the future
c) by the pitiable condition of the Crachit family.
d) by his own conscience

2) The speaker honours Christmas by
a) sending turkey to Crachit’s house
b) giving money to the boy
c) adopting the spirit of Christmas
d) all of the above

3) The lesson that he learnt was
a) to be compassionate and giving
b) to outscore others
c) to live and let live
d) To help people lead a peaceful life

(c)
Oh, lift me as a wave, a leaf, a cloud !
I fall upon the thorns of life, I bleed !
A heavy weight of hours has chain’d and bow’d
One too like thee- tamlless and swift and proud.

1) The above lines reflect the poet’s
a) nostalgia
b) ecstasy
c) dejection
d) fear

2) The poet requests the West Wind
a) to help him create poetry
b) to accompany him on his wanderings
c) to take him away from his sorrows
d) to chain and bend him

3) The poet device used in the above lines is
a) simile
b) metaphor
c) apostrophe
d) repetition
Q 14. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each. (2x4=8 Marks)
a) How does the west wind act both as a destroyer and preserver?
b) Cutie Pie is an intense and emotional character. Give two references from the text to support your statement.
c) Cratchit proposes the first toast to Mr. Scrooge. What does it tell you about Cratchit’s character?
d) Give an example of ‘leaf imagery’ as used by Shelley to express the moods and influence of West Wind.
e) What are the cobwebs that Babuli refers to in the chapter ‘The Tribute’?

Q 15 Answer any one of the following: (6 Marks)
As Babuli’s wife, present your case challenging your husband’s decision in a letter you write to him.
OR
The newspaper yelled it. TV followed it up. It seemed a big story, bigger than……….
As a reader express your opinion about the role media played in Cutie Pie’s existence on Earth.





EXAMINATION SPECIFICATIONS
English Communicative
Code No. 101
CLASS – X
Division of Syllabus for Term I (April-September) Total Weightage Assigned
Summative Assessment I
Section Marks

20%
Reading 20
Writing 20
Grammar 20
Literature 20
Formative Assessment 20%
TOTAL 40%

Division of Syllabus for Term II (October-March) Total Weightage Assigned
Summative Assessment II
Section Marks
Reading 20 40%
Writing 20
Grammar 20
Literature 20
Formative Assessment 20%
TOTAL 60%
Note:
1. The total weightage assigned to Summative Assessment (SA I&II) IS 60%. The total weightagwe assigned to Formative Assessment (FA1, 2, 3, &4) is 40%. Out of the 40% assigned to Formative Assessment, 10% weightage is assigned to conversation skills (5% each in Term I&II) and 10% weightage to the Reading Project (at least 1 Book is to be read in each term and the Project will carry a weightage of 5% in each term)

2. The Summative Assessment I and Summative Assessment II is for eighty marks. The weighatge assigned to Summative Assessment I is 20% and the weightage assigned to Summative Assessment II is 40%.

SECTION A: READING
20 Marks
Qs1-4 Four unseen reading passages of 5 marks each. Each reading passage will have 5 sub-parts, each of 1 mark. All questions will be multiple choice questions. The passages will be extracts from poems/ factual/ descriptive/ literary/ discursive passages. Questions will test inference, evaluation and vocabulary. There will be at least 04 marks for assessing vocabulary skills. The total length of the 4 passages will be between 650 and 800 words.

SECTION B: WRITING 20 Marks
The writing section comprises of three writing task as indicated below:
Q 5 A short answer question of upto 80 words in the form of a Biographical Sketch (expansion of
notes on an individual’s life or achievements into a short paragraph)/Data Interpretation,
Dialogue Writing or Description (People, Places, Events).
The question will assess students’skill of expressing ideas in clear and grammatically correct English, presenting ideas coherently and concisely, writing a clear description, a clear account of events, expanding notes into a piece of writing , or transcoding information from one form to another. 4 Marks
Q 6 Along answer question (minimum 120 words) in the form of a formal letter/ informal letter or
an email. The output would be a long piece of writing and will assess the use of appropriate
style, language, content and expression.
Q 7 A long answer question (minimum 150 words) in the form of a diary entry, article,
speech, story or debate.
Students’skills in expression of ideas in clear and grammatically correct English, planning, organising and presenting ideas coherently by introducing, developing and concluding a topic, comparing and contrasting ideas and arriving at a conclusion, presenting an argument with supporting examples, using an appropriate style and format and expanding notes into longer pieces of writing and creative expression of ideas will be assessed. 8 Marks
Important Notes on Format and Word Limit:
• Format will not carry any separate marks and in most cases, format will be given in the question paper.
• The word limit given is the suggested minimum word limit. No candidate may be penalised for writing more or less than the suggested word limit. Stress should be on content, expression, coherence and relevance of the content presented.

SECTION C: GRAMMAR
This section will assess Grammar items in context for 20 Marks. It will carry 5 question of 4 marks each.
Tests items will be Multiple Choice Questions and test various grammatical items in context.
Q 8to12 will test grammar items which have been dealt with in class X. Different structures such as verb forms, sentence structure, connectors, determiners, pronouns, prepositions, clauses, phrases etc., can be tested through formative assessment over a period of time. As far as the summative assessment is concerned, it will recycle grammar items learnt over a period of time and will test them in context through Multiple Choice Question format.
Tests types used will include gap-filling, cloze (gap filling exercise with blanks at regular intervals), sentence completion, recording word groups into sentences, editing, dialogue-completion and sentence-transformation.
The grammar syllabus will be sampled each year, with marks allotted for:
Verbs forms
Sentence structures
Other areas
Note: Jumbled words in reordering exercise to test syntax will involve sentences in a context. Each sentence will be split into sense groups (not necessarily into single words) and jumbled up.

Section D: LITERATURE 20 Marks
Q 13 Two extracts out of three from prose, poetry or plays in the form Multiple
Choice Questions based on reference to context. Each extract will carry 3 marks.
(Word limit: 20-30 words) 3+3=6 Marks

Q 14 Four out of Five short answer type questions based on prose, poetry and play of 2 marks each. The
questions will not test recall but inference and evaluation.
(Word limit: 30-40 words each) 8 Marks
Q 15 One out of two long answer type questions to assess personal response to text by going beyond the
extrapolation beyond the text and across two texts will also be assessed.
6 Marks
Prescribed Books/ Materials

1. Interact in English – X Main Course Book Revised edition
2. Interact in English – X Literature Reader Revised edition Published by
CBSE
3. Interact in English –X Workbook Revised edition Delhi-110092

Reading Section:
Reading for comprehension, critical evaluation, inference and analysis is a skill to be tested formatively as well as summatively. There will be no division of passages for this section, however for reading purpose, the Interact in English Main Course Book will be read in two terms i.e. Term I(April-September) and Term II (October-March).


Writing Section:
All types of short and extended writing tasks will be dealt with in both I and II Term Summative as well as in Formative Assessment. For purpose of assessment all themes dealt with in Main Course Book and other themes may be used.
Grammar:
Grammar items mentioned in the syllabus will be taught and assessed summatively as well as formatively over a period of time. There will be no division of syllabus for Grammar in the summative of formative assessments for the terms.
Syllabus for SA 1

Literature Reader

PROSE
1. The Tribute
2. Cutie Pie

POETRY
1. Night of the Scorpion
2. Ode to the West Wind
DRAMA
1. A Christmas Carol
Main Course Book
1. Health and Medicine
2. Education


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